Health Ministry Releases gazette on UPSC CMS Exam 2024, details

Published On 2024-04-16 05:30 GMT   |   Update On 2024-04-16 05:30 GMT

New Delhi: The Department of Health, operative under the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has recently published the Rules for the 2024 Combined Medical Services, which is held by the Union Public Service Commission- UPSC CMS 2024 exam.Published in the Gazette of India dated April 10, 2024, these Rules have specified the eligibility criteria, the syllabus of the...

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New Delhi: The Department of Health, operative under the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has recently published the Rules for the 2024 Combined Medical Services, which is held by the Union Public Service Commission- UPSC CMS 2024 exam.

Published in the Gazette of India dated April 10, 2024, these Rules have specified the eligibility criteria, the syllabus of the examination, examination scheme, reservation criteria, conditions applied for both written and physical examination and all the other important factors related to the examination.

The rules for a Competitive Examination for the Combined Medical Services to be held by the Union Public Service Commission in 2024 for the purpose of filling vacancies in the following services/posts, are with the concurrence of Ministries/Departments concerned, Delhi Municipal Corporation and New Delhi Municipal Council, published for general information:-

Category-I

Medical Officers Grade in General Duty Medical Officers Sub-cadre of Central Health Service

Category-II

(a) Assistant Divisional Medical Officer in the Railways.

(b) General Duty Medical Officer in New Delhi Municipal Council.

(c) General duty Medical Officer Gr-II in Municipal Corporation of Delhi.

All candidates (male/female/transgender) are requested to carefully read these Rules and the examination notice of the UPSC derived from these Rules.

The date(s) on which and the place(s) at which the examination will be held shall be fixed by the Commission.

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:

A candidate may compete in respect of anyone or more of the services/posts mentioned above. A candidate who qualifies on the results of the written part of the examination will be required to indicate clearly in the Detailed Application Form the services/posts for which he/she wishes to be considered in the order of preferences. The candidate is advised to indicate his/her preferences as he/she wishes so that having regard to his/her rank in order of merit due consideration can be given to his/her preferences while making appointments. While indicating preference a candidate shall have to indicate choice between Category I and Category II first duly keeping in view the eligibility for the two categories of posts/services in terms of Rule 5(a)&(b) below. Subsequently the candidate will also indicate preferences among services/ posts of Category II. In case preference for none of the Services is indicated, the candidate will not be considered for Service Allocation. Candidates will be recommended by the Commission based on the preference of categories given by them in the Detailed Application Forms, order of merit and number of vacancies.

(i) Candidates are advised to examine their eligibility for both categories carefully while exercising preferences of categories and services in terms of Rules 5(a)&(b).

(ii) No request for addition/alteration in the preferences already indicated by a candidate in his/her Detailed Application Forms will be entertained by the Commission/Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.

(iii) Once cadre has been allocated to a candidate, no request for change of cadre shall be entertained by the Commission/Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.

The number of vacancies to be filled on the basis of results of the examination will be specified in the Notice issued by the Commission. Reservation will be made for candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, the Other Backward Classes, Economically Weaker Sections and Persons with Benchmark Disability in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government.

A candidate be either:

(i) a citizen of India, or

(ii) a subject of Nepal, or

(iii) a subject of Bhutan, or

(iv) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before the 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India; or

(v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka or East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, The United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or from Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India:

Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination but the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him by the Government of India.

(a) A candidate for this examination must not have attained the age of 32 years as on 1st August, 2024 i.e. he must have been born not earlier than 2nd August,1992. However, for Medical Officers Grade in General Duty Medical Officers Sub-cadre of Central Health Service, the upper age limit must not exceed 35 (thirty five years) as on 1st August, 2024.

(b) The upper age- limit is relaxable as follows:

(i) Up to a maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe.

(ii) Up to a maximum of three years in the case of candidate belonging to Other Backward Classes who are eligible for reservation applicable to such candidates.

(iii) Up to a maximum of three years in the case of Defence Services Personnel, disabled in operations during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof.

(iv) Up to a maximum of five years in the case of Ex-servicemen including Commissioned Officers and ECOs/SSCOs who have rendered at least five years Military Service as on 1st August, 2024 and have been released (i) on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year from 1st August, 2024 otherwise than by ways of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct of inefficiency), or (ii) on account of physical disability attributable to Military Service or (iii) on invalidment.

(v) Up to a maximum of five years in the case of ECOs/SSCOs who have completed an initial period of assignment of five years of Military Service as on 1st August, 2024 and whose assignment has been extended beyond five years and in whose case the Ministry of Defence issues a certificate that they can apply for Civil Employment and that they will be released on three months’ notice on selection from the date of receipt of offer of appointment.

(vi) Up to a maximum of ten years in the case of Persons with Benchmark Disability viz. (a) blindness and low vision, (b) deaf and hard of hearing, (c) Locomotor disability including cerebral palsy,leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims and muscular dystrophy, (d) autism, intellectual disability, specific learning disability and mental illness; (e) multiple disabilities from amongst person under clauses (a) to (d) of Section 34 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 including deaf-blindness.

Note I- Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes and the Other Backward Classes who are also covered under any other clauses of Rule 5 (b) above, viz. those coming under the category of Ex-servicemen, and Persons with Benchmark Disability will be eligible for grant of cumulative agerelaxation under both the categories.

Note II- The details of Functional Classification (FC) and Physical Requirements (PR) of each service are indicated in Appendix IV of these Rules which are identified and prescribed by the respective Cadre Controlling Authorities (CCAs) as per the provisions of Section 33 and 34 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016. Only those category (ies) of disability (ies) mentioned in Appendix IV shall apply for the examination under Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) Category. Therefore, the candidates belonging to the Persons with Benchmark Disability categories are advised to read it carefully before applying for the examination.

Note III- The term Ex-servicemen will apply to the persons who are defined as Ex-servicemen in the Ex-servicemen (Re-employment in Civil Services and Posts) Rules, 1979, as amended from time to time.

Note IV- The age concession under Rule 5(b) (iv) and (v) will be admissible to Ex-servicemen i.e. a person who has served in any rank whether as combatant or non-combatant in the Regular Army, Navy and Air Force of the Indian Union and who either has been retired or relieved or discharged from such service whether at his own request or being relieved by the employer after earning his or her pension.

Note V- Notwithstanding the provision of age-relaxation under Rule 5(b)(vi) above, a Person with Benchmark Disability will be considered to be eligible for appointment only if he/she after such physical examination as the Government or appointing authority, as the case may be, may prescribe is found to satisfy the requirements of physical and medical standards for the concerned Services/Posts to be allocated to the Persons with Benchmark Disability by the Government.

SAVE AS PROVIDED ABOVE THE AGE LIMITS PRESCRIBED CAN IN NO CASE BE RELAXED

(c) The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary SchoolLeaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University which must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificate.

No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, Service records and the like will be accepted.

The Expression Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate in this Part of the instructions include the alternative certificates mentioned above.

Note 1:- Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in the Matriculation/ Secondary Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of application will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.

Note 2:- Candidates should also note that once a date of birth has been submitted by them and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently or at any other Examination of the Commission on any ground whatsoever.

Provided that in case of an inadvertent/ unintentional/typographical error committed by a candidate in indicating the date of birth in the Online Application Form, the candidate may make a request to the Commission for subsequent rectification along with supporting documents, as specified in the Rule 5 (c) of the Examination Rule and the request may be considered by the Commission, if the same is made within a definite time frame as may be notified by the Commission in its Notice for the Examination.

A candidate must have passed the written and practical part of the final M.B.B.S. Examination.

Note 1: A candidate who has appeared/or is yet to appear at the final M.B.B.S. Examination may also apply. Such candidates will be admitted to the examination if otherwise eligible but the admission would be deemed to be provisional subject to cancellation, if they do not produce proof of having passed the written and practical parts of the final M.B.B.S. Examination along with the Detailed Application Forms which will be required to be submitted to the Commission by the candidates who qualify on the result of the written part of the examination. Such proof of passing the requisite examination should have been issued latest by the closing date of Detailed Application Forms of the Combined Medical Services Examination, 2024.

Note 2: A candidate who has yet to complete the compulsory rotating internship is educationally eligible for admission to the examination but on selection he/she will be appointed only after he/she has completed the compulsory rotating internship.

Candidates must pay the fee prescribed in the Commission’s Notice.

All candidates in Government service, whether in permanent or temporary capacity or as work charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises are however, required to submit an undertaking that they have informed in writing their Head of Office/Department that they have applied for the examination.

Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the Commission withholding permission to the candidates applying for/ appearing at the examination their application shall be rejected/candidature shall be cancelled.

The decision of the Commission with regard to the acceptance of the application of a candidate and his/her eligibility or otherwise for admission to the examination shall be final.

The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of examination for which they are admitted by the Commission viz. Written Examination and Interview Test will be purely provisional subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the Written Examination or Interview

Test, it is found that they do not fulfil any of the eligibility conditions; their candidature for the examination will be cancelled by the Commission.

No candidate shall be admitted to the examination unless he/she holds a certificate of admission from the Commission.

(1). A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of:—

(a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely:-

(i) offering illegal gratification to; or

(ii) applying pressure on; or

(iii) blackmailing or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of the examination; or

(b) impersonation; or

(c) procuring impersonation by any person; or

(d) submitting fabricated / incorrect documents or documents which have been tampered with; or

(e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photo/ signature in the application form in place of actual photo/signature; or

(f) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information; or

(g) resorting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the examination, namely :-

(i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means; or

(ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to the examination; or

(iii) influencing the examiners; or

(h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or

(i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in the scripts; or

(j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow examinees to boycott examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like; or

(k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of

the examination; or

(l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone (even in switched-off mode) pager or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc or camera or bluetooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories (either in working or switched-off mode) capable of being used as a communication device or during the examination; or

(m) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their admission certificates permitting them to take the examination; or

(n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses;

In addition to being liable to criminal prosecution, shall be disqualified by the Commission from the Examination held under these Rules; and/or shall be liable to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period:-

I. by the Commission, from any examination or selection held by them;

II. by the Central Government from any employment under them; and shall be liable to face disciplinary action under the appropriate rules if already in service under Government; Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after:-

(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing as the candidate may

wish to make in that behalf; and

(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period allowed for this purpose, into consideration.

(2) Any person who is found by the Commission to be guilty of colluding with a candidate(s) in committing or abetting the commission of any of the misdeeds listed at the clauses (a) to (m) above will be liable to action in terms of the clause (n) above.

Candidates who obtain such minimum qualifying, marks in the written examination as may be fixed by the Commission in their discretion shall be summoned by them for an interview for a personality test:

Provided that candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes or the Other Backward Classes or Economically Weaker Sections or Persons with Benchmark Disability may be summoned for an interview for personality test by the Commission by applying relaxed standards if the Commission are of the opinion that sufficient number of candidates from these communities are not likely to be summoned for interview for personality test on the basis of the general standard in order to fill up the vacancies reserved for them.

(1) After interview the Commission will prepare two separate merit lists - one for Category I i.e. the Medical Officers Grade in General Duty Medical Officers Sub-cadre of Central Health Service and the other for Category II i.e. Non-CHS (viz. Ministry of Railways, New Delhi Municipal Council, Municipal Corporation of Delhi) on the basis of the ranks/preferences of the candidates and vacancies. For preparation of result, the candidates shall be arranged by the Commission in the order of merit on the basis of aggregate marks finally awarded to each candidate in the Examination. Thereafter, the Commission, based on the preference exercised by the candidates, shall recommend candidates to both Categories in order of respective merit for each category. The Commission shall for the purpose of recommending candidates against unreserved vacancies, fix separate qualifying marks (hereinafter referred to as general qualifying standards) with reference to the number of unreserved vacancies to be filled up in CHS and other remaining Services/Posts on the basis of the Examination. For the purpose of recommending reserved category candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, the Other Backward Classes, the Economically Weaker Sections and Persons with Benchmark Disability against reserved vacancies the Commission may relax the qualifying standards with reference to number of reserved vacancies to be filled up in each of these categories on the basis of the examination.

Provided that the candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, the Other Backward Classes, the Economically Weaker Sections and Persons with Benchmark Disability who have not availed themselves of any of the concessions or relaxations in the eligibility or selection criteria, at any stage of the Examination and who after taking into account the general qualifying standards are found fit for recommendation by the Commission shall not be recommended against the vacancies reserved for the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, the Other Backward Classes, Economically Weaker Sections and Persons with Benchmark Disability but shall in the first instance be recommended by the Commission against the unreserved vacancies.

Note: The facility of scribe alongwith compensatory time which is available for eligible candidates belonging to PwBD category and the disability of such candidates which he is suffering from in respect of Medical Fitness, shall not be treated as relaxation/concession.

(2) While making service allocation for the Services/posts in Category II the candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, the Other Backward Classes, Economically Weaker Sections and Persons with Benchmark Disability recommended against unreserved vacancies may be adjusted against reserved vacancies by the Government if by this process they get a service of higher choice in the order of their preference.

(3) For preparation of the merit list for the services/posts in Category II, the Commission may further lower the general qualifying standards to take care of any shortfall of candidates for appointment against resultant unreserved vacancies and any surplus of candidates against reserved vacancies arising out of the process as per provisions of this rule, the Commission may make the recommendations in the manner prescribed in sub-rules (4) and (5).

(4)(a)(1) While recommending the candidates for the services/posts in Category-II the Commission shall in the first instance, take into account the total number of vacancies of Category-II only. This total number of recommended candidates shall be reduced by the number of candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, the Other Backward Classes, Economically Weaker Sections and Persons with Benchmark Disability who acquire the merit at or above the fixed general qualifying standards for these services/posts without availing themselves of any concession or relaxation in the eligibility or selection criteria in terms of the proviso to sub-rule (1).

(4)(a)(2) While exercising the method defined in sub-rule (4)(a)(1), due consideration may be taken to secure the vacancy(ies) for PwBD candidates expected to be recommended from Reserve List and if required, the total number of recommended candidates shall be reduced appropriately in addition to reduction as per sub-rule (4)(a)(1).

(4)(b) Along with this list of recommended candidates for the services/posts in Category-II only, the Commission shall also maintain a consolidated reserve list of candidates which will include candidates from unreserved, reserved categories and PwBD category, ranking in order of merit below the last recommended candidate under each category. The consolidated reserve list so maintained shall be treated as confidential till the process of recommendation(s) in term of sub-rule (5) is finally concluded by the Commission. The number of candidates in each of these categories will be equal to the number of reserved category candidates who were included in the first list without availing of any relaxation or concession in eligibility or selection criteria as per proviso to sub-rule(1) and reduction in recommendation against unreserved vacancy(ies), if any, in light of sub-rule (4)(a)(2).

(4)(c) The number of reserved category in the Consolidated Reserve List, from each category of Schedule Caste, Schedule Tribe, Other Backward Class, Economically Weaker Section and Persons with Benchmark Disability will be equal to the Respective number of candidates reduced in each category while recommending candidates in the first instance as per sub-rule 4(a)(1) and 4(a)(2).

(5) The candidates recommended in terms of the provisions of sub-rule (4), shall be allocated by the Government to the services/posts in Category-II and where certain vacancies still remain to be filled up, the Government may forward a requisition to the Commission requiring it to recommend, in order of merit from the reserve list, the same number of candidates as requisitioned for the purpose of the unfilled vacancies in each category.

Note: Reserve list is not a waiting list to cater to vacancies arising out of other reasons such as candidates not turning up to join, being found medically unfit, left out on account of medical fitness for limited services, resignation or any other reasons. Commission will not take into account such vacancies for release of Reserve list.

(6) No consolidated reserve list will be maintained by the Commission for Category-I as the provisions of sub-rule (2), (3), (4) and (5) above are not applicable for allocation of candidates to Category-I.

The minimum qualifying marks as specified under rules 11 and 12 may be relaxable at the discretion of the Commission in favour of Persons with Benchmark Disability in order to fill up the vacancies reserved for them.

The form and manner of communication of the result of the examination to individual candidates shall be decided by the Commission in their discretion and the Commission will not enter into correspondence with them regarding the results.

Subject to other provisions contained in these rules, successful candidates will be considered for appointment on the basis of the order of merit assigned to them by the Commission and preference expressed by them for various posts.

Success in the examination confers no right to appointment unless Government are satisfied after such enquiry as may be considered necessary that the candidate with regard to his/her character and antecedents is suitable in all respects for appointment to the service. The appointment will be further subject to the candidate satisfying the appointing authority of his/her having satisfactorily completed the compulsory rotating internship.

A candidate must be in good mental and bodily health and free from any physical defects likely to interfere with the discharge of his/her duties as an officer of the Service. A candidate who after such physical examination, as Government or the appointing authority, as the case may be prescribe is found not to satisfy these requirements will not be appointed. The Regulations relating to Physical/Medical Examination of candidates are given in Appendix-III to these Rules. A Medical Board Report Format for medical examination is given at Appendix – VIII.

All candidates who qualify for interview/personality test on the basis of written part of the examination shall be required to undergo the medical examination normally on the next working day immediately after the day of interview/ personality test of the concerned candidate (there shall be no medical examination on Saturdays, Sundays and closed holidays). Arrangements for the complete medical examination including X-Ray of chest of candidates will be made by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Nirman Bhawan, New Delhi and intimation in this regard shall be given by the Ministry to the concerned candidates. In case a candidate does not receive any intimation about the arrangements made for his/her Medical Examination before he/she leaves for his/her interview/personality test he/she should contact personally to the concerned authority in Ministry of Health and Family Welfare immediately after his/her interview/personality test is over. The concerned candidate may have to stay in Delhi until his/her Medical Examination is over, therefore the candidate should take this fact in consideration and make his/her own arrangements for stay in Delhi for the purpose of completion of Medical Examination formality. No extension postponement of the date fixed for the Medical Examination shall be allowed under any circumstances. Also no TA/DA shall be admissible for the purpose of completion of the formality of Medical Examination of the concerned candidate.

To be passed as fit for appointment, a candidate must be in good mental and bodily health and free from any physical defect likely to interfere with the discharge of his duties as an officer of the service. A candidate, who after such medical examination as Government or the appointing authority, as the case may be, may prescribe, is found not to satisfy these requirements will not be appointed. A candidate who has been left out on account of medical fitness for limited services and no vacancy being available at his turn cannot be allocated to any service for which he is not fit and where vacancies exists. Candidates declared medically unfit as per medical standards specified in Appendix – III will be left out from the allocation process.

For being considered against the vacancies reserved for them the Persons with Benchmark Disability should have disability of forty per cent (40%) or more. However, such candidates shall be required to meet one or more of the physical requirements/abilities indicated in Appendix – IV which may be necessary for performing the duties in the concerned Services/Posts.

The eligibility for availing reservation against the vacancies reserved for the Persons with Benchmark Disability shall be the same as prescribed in “The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.” The candidates of Multiple Disabilities will be eligible for reservation under category (e) - Multiple Disabilities only of Section 34(1) of RPwD Act, 2016 and shall not be eligible for reservation under any other categories of disabilities i.e. (a) to (d) of Section 34(1) of RPwD Act, 2016 on account of having 40% and above impairment in any of these categories of PwBD.

Provided further that the Persons with Benchmark Disability shall also be required to meet special eligibility criteria in terms of Functional Classification and Physical Requirements (abilities/disabilities) (FC&PR) consistent with requirements of the identified service/post as may be prescribed by its Cadre Controlling Authority. A list of services identified suitable for Persons with Benchmark Disability alongwith the Functional Classification and Physical Requirements is at Appendix IV.

A candidate will be eligible to get the benefit of community reservation only in case the particular caste to which the candidates belongs is included in the list of reserved communities issued by the Central Government. The candidates will be eligible to get the benefit of the Economically Weaker Section reservation only in case the candidate meets the criteria issued by the Central Government and in possession of such eligibility certification.

The OBC candidates applying for Combined Medical Services Examination, 2024 must produce OBC (Non- Creamy Layer) certificate based on the Income for the Financial Year (FY) 2021-2022, 2022-2023 and 2023-2024 and issued on/after 01.04.2024 (after the completion of FY 2023-24) but not later than the closing date of the application for Combined Medical Services Examination-2024 i.e. 30.04.2024.

If a candidate indicates in his/her application form for Combined Medical Service Examination that he/she belongs to Unreserved Category but subsequently writes to the Commission to change his/her category, to a reserved one, such request shall not be entertained by the Commission. Further, once a candidate has chosen a reserved category, no request shall be entertained for change to other reserved category viz. SC to ST, ST to SC, OBC to SC/ST or SC/ST to OBC. SC to EWS, EWS to SC, ST to EWS, EWS to ST, OBC to EWS, EWS to OBC. No reserved category candidates other than those who qualified each stage of the Examination on General standard shall be allowed to change (on their request or as decided by the Commission/Government based on the documents submitted by them) their category from reserved to unreserved or claim the vacancies (Service/Cadre) for unreserved category after the declaration of final result by UPSC. In cases where such candidates do not qualify on General Standard, their candidature shall be cancelled.

Further, no Person with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) of any sub-category there under shall be allowed to change his/her sub-category of disability.

While the above principle will be followed in general, there may be a few cases where there was a gap not more than 3 months between the issuance of a Government Notification enlisting a particular community in the list of any of the reserved communities and the date of submission of the application by the candidate. In such cases the request of change of community from general to reserved may be considered by the Commission on merit. In case of a candidate unfortunately becoming persons with benchmark disability during the course of the examination process, the candidate should produce valid document showing him acquiring a disability to the extent of 40% or more as defined under the RPwD Act, 2016 to enable him to get the benefits of PwBD reservation.

Candidates seeking reservation/relaxation benefits available for SC/ST/OBC/EWS/PwBD/Ex-servicemen must ensure that they are entitled to such reservation/relaxation as per eligibility prescribed in the Rules/Notice. They should be in possession of all the requisite certificates in the prescribed format in support of their claims as stipulated in the Rules/Notice for such benefits, by the closing date of the application for Combined Medical Services Examination, 2024. (Prescribed Format of Disability Certificate should be submitted by Persons with Benchmark Disability candidates as per Form V to Form VII (as applicable) of Min of Social Justice and Empowerment Notification dated 15th June, 2017 as at Annexure-III).

A candidate of Combined Medical Services Examination, 2024 will be eligible to get the benefit of the Economically Weaker Section reservation only in case the candidate meets the criteria issued by the Central Government and is in possession of requisite Income & Asset Certificate based on the income for Financial Year (FY) 2023-2024 and issued on/after 01.04.2024 (after the completion of FY 2023-24) but not later than the closing date of the application for Combined Medical Services Examination-2024 i.e. 30.04.2024.

No person,-

(a) Who has entered into or contracted a marriage with a person having a spouse living; or

(b) Who having a spouse living has entered into or contracted a marriage with any person; shall be eligible for appointment to service:

Provided that the Central Government may, if satisfied that such marriage is permissible under the personal

law applicable to such person and the other party to the marriage and there are other grounds for so doing, exempt any person from the operation of this rule.

Brief particulars relating to the Services/Posts to which recruitment is being made through this examination are given in Appendix II.

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

The examination shall be conducted according to the following plan:-

Part-I

WRITTEN EXAMINATION – (500 marks)

The candidates will take the written examination in two Papers, each Paper carrying a maximum of 250 marks. Each Paper will be of two hours duration.

Part-II

PERSONALITY TEST: (100 Marks):

Personality test carrying 100 marks of such of the candidates who qualify on the results of the written examination.

(A) WRITTEN EXAMINATION:

The components and syllabi of two Papers and the weightage to different components in the two papers are given below:

Paper I Maximum (Code No. 1) Marks: 250

General Medicine and Paediatrics:

Total questions in Paper I = 120 (96 from General Medicine and 24 from Paediatrics);

Syllabus

Syllabus of Paper-I

(a) General Medicine including the following:

(i) Cardiology

(ii) Respiratory diseases

(iii) Gastro-intestinal

(iv) Genito-Urinary

(v) Neurology

(vi) Hematology

(vii) Endocrinology

(viii) Metabolic disorders

(ix) Infections/Communicable Diseases

a) Virus

b) Rickets

c) Bacterial

d) Spirochetal

e) Protozoan

f) Metazoan

g) Fungus

(x) Nutrition/Growth

(xi) Diseases of the skin (Dermatology)

(xii) Musculoskelatal System

(xiii) Psychiatry

(xiv) General

(xv) Emergency Medicine

(xvi) Common Poisoning

(xvii) Snake bite

(xviii) Tropical Medicine

(xix) Critical Care Medicine

(xx) Emphasis on medical procedures

(xxi) Patho physiological basis of diseases

(xxii) Vaccines preventable diseases and Non vaccines preventable diseases

(xxiii) Vitamin deficiency diseases

(xxiv) In psychiatry include – Depression, psychosis, anxiety, bipolar diseases and Schizoprenia.

(b) Paediatrics including the following -

(i) Common childhood emergencies,

(ii) Basic new born care,

(iii) Normal developmental milestones,

(iv) Accidents and poisonings in children,

(v) Birth defects and counseling including autism,

(vi) Immunization in children,

(vii) Recognizing children with special needs and management, and

(viii) National programmes related to child health.

Paper II Maximum

(Code No. 2) Marks : 250

(a) Surgery

(b) Gynaecology & Obstetrics

(c) Preventive & Social Medicine

Total questions in Paper II = 120 (40 questions from each part.)

Syllabus of Paper – II

(a) Surgery

(Surgery including ENT, Ophthalmology, Traumatology and Orthopaedics)

(I) General Surgery

i) Wounds

ii) Infections

iii) Tumours

iv) Lymphatic

v) Blood vessels

vi) Cysts/sinuses

vii) Head and neck

viii) Breast

ix) Alimentary tract

a) Oesophagus

b) Stomach

c) Intestines

d) Anus

e) Developmental

x) Liver, Bile, Pancreas

xi) Spleen

xii) Peritoneum

xiii) Abdominal wall

xiv) Abdominal injuries

(II) Urological Surgery

(III) Neuro Surgery

(IV) Otorhinolaryngology E.N.T.

(V) Thoracic surgery

(VI) Orthopedic surgery

(VII) Ophthalmology

(VIII) Anesthesiology

(IX) Traumatology

(X) Diagnosis and management of common surgical ailments

(XI) Pre-operative and post operative care of surgical patients

(XII) Medicolegal and ethical issues of surgery

(XIII) Wound healing

(XIV) Fluid and electrolyte management in surgery

(XV) Shock patho-physiology and management.

(b) GYNAECOLOGY & OBSTETRICS

(I) OBSTETRICS

i) Ante-natal conditions

ii) Intra-natal conditions

iii) Post-natal conditions

iv) Management of normal labours or complicated labour

(II) GYNAECOLOGY

i) Questions on applied anatomy

ii) Questions on applied physiology of menstruation and fertilization

iii) Questions on infections in genital tract

iv) Questions on neoplasma in the genital tract

v) Questions on displacement of the uterus

vi) Normal delivery and safe delivery practices

vii) High risk pregnancy and management

viii) Abortions

ix) Intra Uterine growth retardation

x) Medicolegal examination in obgy and Gynae including Rape.

(III) FAMILY PLANNING

i) Conventional contraceptives

ii) U.D. and oral pills

iii) Operative procedure, sterilization and organization of programmes in the urban and rural

surroundings

iv) Medical Termination of Pregnancy

(c) PREVENTIVE SOCIAL AND COMMUNITY MEDICINE

I Social and Community Medicine

II Concept of Health, Disease and Preventive Medicine

III Health Administration and Planning

IV General Epidemiology

V Demography and Health Statistics

VI Communicable Diseases

VII Environmental Health

VIII Nutrition and Health

IX Non-communicable diseases

X Occupational Health

XI Genetics and Health

XII International Health

XIII Medical Sociology and Health Education

XIV Maternal and Child Health

XV National Programmes

XVI Management of common health problems

XVII Ability to monitor national health programmes

XVIII Knowledge of maternal and child wellness

XIX Ability to recognize, investigate, report, plan and manage community health problems including malnutrition and emergencies.

The written examination in both the papers will be completely of objective (Multiple choice answers) type. The question Papers (Test Booklets) will be set in English only.

General Instructions for Examination:

Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to mark the answers for them. However, the Persons with Benchmark Disabilities in the categories of blindness, locomotor disability (both arm affected–BA) and cerebral palsy will be eligible for the facility of scribe. In case of other category of Persons with Benchmark Disabilities as defined under section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016, such candidates will be eligible for the facility of scribe on production of a certificate to the effect that the person concerned has physical limitation to write, and scribe is essential to write examination on his/her behalf, from the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a Government Health Care institution as per proforma at Appendix–V.

Further, for persons with specified disabilities covered under the definition of Section2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2 (r) of the said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing will be provided the facility of scribe subject to production of a certificate to the effect that person concerned has limitation to write and that scribe is essential to write examination on his/her behalf from the competent medical authority of a Government healthcare institution as per proforma at Appendix – VII.

The candidates have discretion of opting for his/ her own scribe or request the Commission for the same. The details of scribe i.e. whether own or the Commission’s and the details of scribe in case candidates are bringing their own scribe, will be sought at the time of filling up the application form online as per proforma at Appendix - VI (for Candidate having 40% disability or more) and Appendix – IX (for Candidate having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing).

The qualification of the Commission’s scribe as well as own scribe will not be more than the minimum qualification criteria of the examination. However, the qualification of the scribe should always be matriculate or above.

The Persons with Benchmark Disabilities in the category of blindness, locomotor disability (both arm affected-BA) and cerebral palsy will be eligible for Compensatory Time of twenty minutes per hour of the examination. In case of other categories of Person with Benchmark Disabilities, such candidates will be eligible for this facility on production of a certificate to the effect that the person concerned has physical limitation to write from the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a Government Health Care institution as per proforma at Appendix – V.

Further, for persons with specified disabilities covered under the definition of Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing will be provided compensatory time subject to production of a certificate to the effect that person concerned has limitation to write from the competent medical authority of a Government healthcare institution as per proforma at Appendix-VII.

Facility of Scribe and/or Compensatory time in eligible candidate will be provided, if desired by them.

Note (1) : The eligibility conditions of a scribe, his/her conduct inside the examination hall and the manner in which and extent to which he/she can help the eligible candidate (as defined above) in writing the Combined Medical Services Examination shall be governed by the instructions issued by the UPSC in this regard. Violation of all or any of the said instructions shall entail the cancellation of the candidature of candidate in addition to any other action that the UPSC may take against the scribe.

Note (2) : The criteria for determining the percentage of visual impairment shall be as follows :—

Better eye Best Corrected Worse eye Best Corrected Per Cent Impairment Disability category
6/6 to 6/18 6/6 to 6/18 0% 0
6/24 to 6/60 10% 0
Less than 6/60 to 3/60 20% I
Less than 3/60 to No Light Perception 30% II (One eyed person)
6/24 to 6/60 Or Visual field less than 40 up to 20 degree around centre of fixation or heminaopia involving macula 6/24 to 6/60 40% III a (low vision)
Less than 6/60 to 3/60 50% III b (low vision)
Less than 3/60 to No Light Perception 60% III c (low vision)
Less than 6/60 to 3/60 Or Visual field less than 20 up to 10 degree around centre of fixation Less than 6/60 to 3/60 70% III d (low vision)
Less than 3/60 to No Light Perception 80% III e (low vision)
Less than 3/60 to 1/60 Visual field less than 10 degree around centre of fixation Less than 3/60 to No Light Perception 90% IV a (Blindness)
Only HMCF Only Light Perception No Light Perception Only HMCF Only Light Perception No Light Perception 100% IV b (Blindness)

Note (3): The concession admissible to blind/low vision candidates shall not be admissible to those suffering from Myopia.

4. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or both the papers of the examination.

5. Penalty for wrong answers There will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the objective type question papers.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answers to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

6. Candidates are not permitted to use calculators for answering objective type papers. They should, therefore not bring the same inside the Examination Hall.

7. Both the Papers of the CMSE will be of MBBS standard.

(B) PERSONALITY TEST – (100 marks):

Candidates who qualify in the written examination will be called for Interview/ Personality Test to be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission. The Interview/ Personality Test will carry 100 marks.

The Interview for Personality Test will be intended to serve as a supplement to the written examination for testing the General Knowledge and ability of the candidates in the fields of their academic study and also in the nature of a personality test to assess the candidate’s intellectual curiosity, critical powers of assimilation, balance of judgement and alertness of mind, ability for social cohesion, integrity of character, initiative and capability for leadership.

To view the gazette, Click here : https://medicaldialogues.in/pdf_upload/upsc-cms-236183.pdf

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